> Consider the following (abusive situation): > initial begin > // assert something false (1) > #0; > // assert something false (2) > #1; > // assert something false (3) > end > In my approach, the process becomes active at time 0. Any deferred assertions (none) are flushed. We then "schedule" assert 1 for the observed region and do the #0. The process becomes active *again* at time 0. Pending assertions -- i.e. assertion 1 -- are flushed. If we are asserting something, then after an explicit #0 delay asserting something else, why should the first assertion be considered a glitch? Isn't it likely that these are two different checks of two different conditions? -- This message has been scanned for viruses and dangerous content by MailScanner, and is believed to be clean.Received on Fri Oct 12 08:01:47 2007
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