>From: Gordon Vreugdenhil <gordonv@model.com> >I think that it is pretty easy to argue that this should be >allowed since "x" is really the same as a distinct variable >declaration; it is primarily its name scoping that is different. > >So, two aspects -- first, does everyone agree that forcing a >static class property should be legal? Second, if you do >agree, do we need to clarify that in 2097 (or elsewhere)? From an implementation viewpoint, I agree that a static class property is pretty much the same as a distinct static variable, that happens to have a scope that is inside the class declaration. From that implementation viewpoint, it isn't really part of the class aggregate object. However, the OO conceptual model is that it is part of the class aggregate object. It seems to me that this more relevant to the issue than the implementation detains. Also, there are some ways other than scoping that the static properties are considered part of the class. For example, a wait on a class method can re-evaluate the class method to check for a change any time a class property changes, and that presumably includes static properties. So I would say that a straightforward interpretation of the LRM would be that the static class property is not an independent variable, and cannot be forced. Steven Sharp sharp@cadence.com -- This message has been scanned for viruses and dangerous content by MailScanner, and is believed to be clean.Received on Mon, 14 Jan 2008 23:42:19 -0500 (EST)
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